Diabetic Retinopathy Screening - Look Into My Eyes

DidIDoThat2.jpg
It ain’t hard to tell I got money
You can see it if you’re blind
You can see it when it shine
You see it then it’s mine
Always on my hustle, always on my grind (screening) 24/7, 365
— Wiz Khalifa in "Look Into My Eyes" or an Opthamologist
image.jpg

We are truly blessed to be living at this exact moment in time. No, not this generation or century but this exact week. Well at least until Sunday. That is because humanity will be able to witness the conclusion of Breaking Bad - the best TV show that ever graced our multimedia-saturated minds. I can't help but think about Walt and his journey this week as it all ends in what will hopefully be a fitting conclusion for such an amazing character. If you haven't watched the show let me introduce you briefly to Walt.

He's a middle aged man who was formerly a brilliant scientist but one who was eventually relegated to teaching high school chemistry. He finds out one day he has lung cancer and immediately contemplates his inevitable departure from this earth. In doing this, he looks to find a way to take care of his family's financial future. This leads to cooking Methamphetamine and eventually creating an empire with his scientific prowess while ruining some other lives in the process. But it was all for the good of his family.

That's kind of how screening goes in medicine. 

The general public, and probably the majority of physicians, "shotgun" screen patients because they genuinely believe that it is doing some good. Grabbing a TSH, CBC, and BMP never hurt anyone, right? But for a healthy 31 year old female, there wouldn't really be a need for any of that. Those few tests add up too, kind of like the small lies that Walt told that eventually forced him into bigger, more dangerous lies. If we screen people for no good reason we're just wasting money that could be put to actual good use. It's no secret that there are specialist physician groups that advocate for more aggressive screening and it just so happens the screening would involve them seeing more patients than they normally would. Again, I'm not saying specialist organizations are a bunch of Dr. Evils, but when you're living in arena called the American Health Care System it can lead to a dog eat dog mentality. 

That long winded intro leads me to my question this week: 

How often do I need to screen my type II diabetic patients for retinopathy?
The-Orion-nebula-in-the-optical-by-CFHT.jpg

Current guidelines for diabetic retinopathy (DR) screening are a bit nebulous. The American Diabetic Association (ADA) recommends yearly screening initially then essentially gives the power to the Opthalmologist to determine the frequency. It would theoretically be based on the presence or absence of retinopathy or signs that it may be developing. Unfortunately, the USPSTF doesn't have any official stance on this topic so the mainstay recommendation that people typically follow is the ADA's. The question is, how many of us (family physicians) actually adhere to this? I for one will admit that retinopathy checks are often the last on my to-do lists for my diabetic patients. Right after med management, diet, exercise, more med management, microalbumin/creatinine, pneumovax, foot checks, and more med management.

I clearly haven't learned my lesson yet as I still thought "simple question must have simple answer, right?" The answer to this question may be the most complex yet and it starts with me having to define two things that were and still are very confusing to me.  The first is quality-adjusted life years (QALY). QALY is essentially a number that is assigned to the quality of life one leads over a year. For instance, 1.0 equals perfect health and 0 equals death. Everything else falls in between. The lovely example Wikipedia uses is 0.5 equaling being bedridden. 

The second thing that needs to be clarified is utility value. Utility value is very similar to QALY in that it tries to objectively measure the impact of a disease process on a patient's ability to function in their everyday life. Again, the 1 and 0 values for QALY also apply to utility value as well, it's just not used in terms of years.

So now that we are armed with that information, let's jump into the data. The data on topic essentially boils down to a debate between two doctors and a couple of incidence studies. Let's start with the back and forth between Drs. Javitt and Vijan. Dr. Javitt was the first to publish back in 1994 in Diabetes Care [1]. His study was essentially a cost analysis of diabetic retinopathy screening for America. Using his own model and theoretical population based on epidemiological studies and clinical trials he came to the conclusion that America would save a lot of money if they did the "recommended" opthalmologic care (yearly screening) for diabetics. Close to $500 million to be exact. In addition, he argued this would save 94,000+ person-years of sight. 

heres-how-much-the-giant-pile-of-money-on-breaking-bad-is-worth.jpg

Great! Looks like we'll save a bunch of money. But wait, Dr. Vijan comes by in 2000 and really starts beefin' with Javitt and his work. He publishes a paper in JAMA that showed that there really wasn't a big difference between yearly screening versus every 3 years. [2] He sighted some examples saying that a 45 year old diabetic patient with an A1c of 11% gained on average 21 days of sight when screened annually versus every 3 years. Also, a 65 year old patient with an A1c of 7% would gain only three days of sight. Finally, he showed that the low risk group (75yo, A1c 7%) would cost $211,570 per QALY gained while the high risk group (45yo, A1c 11%) would cost $40,530 per QALY gained. Extrapolating to the presumed US population he found it cost $107,510 per QALY gained for annual versus every other year screening and $49,760 per QALY for every other year versus every three years.

That's a lot of numbers.

To put things a bit more into perspective the "accepted" definition of a cost-effective intervention is at $50,000 per QALY gained. So based on that we could see that annual screening is only cost effective in the high-risk group as well as  if you were to stretch out screening to every 3 years. In the end, Dr. Vijan discussed how he thought having tailored screening recommendations such as annual for high risk and every 2-3 years for low risk might be beneficial. He also pointed out that some of the aggressive screening recommendations might be overzealous since controlling for risk factors like hypertension has been shown to substantially reduce retinopathy risk. And hey, we're Family Medicine physicians, if there's one thing we know it's hypertension.

Pretty convincing eh? At least I thought so.

3ri5lh.jpg

But back comes Dr. Javitt as he is not one to be down for the count. In that same year, Dr. Javitt posted a response in JAMA, that kind of like his initial recommendations, were a bit aggressive. [3] Some of the main arguments were that Dr. Vijan's study used the NHANES III population which only had a single photograph of each eye (sensitivity for retinopathy, 60%) versus the gold standard 7-field photography. He also chided him for not using the "internationally adopted simulation mode for testing public health interventions" which was surprise... a model Dr. Javitt created in 1997 (Diabetes Care). The best argument in my opinion is that Dr. Vijan used a utility value of 0.69 for vision loss instead of the 0.48 that Dr. Javitt used. What's funny is that most of the data COMPLETELY REVOLVES AROUND THESE TWO NUMBERS.

If you used 0.48 as your value for vision loss (close to complete blindness), then annual screening becomes much more effective. However, if you use 0.69 (typically a value used for vision < 20/200) then the opposite is true. So it basically comes down to what you consider to be vision loss: the legal definition of blindness or actual blindness. 

After I saw that, I essentially gave up as I quickly realized there were way too many subjective moving pieces (utility value, cost of an eye exam/medicare reimbursement, what is high risk or low risk, the best methods for eye exam, etc) to adequately analyze this argument anymore.  

I'm tired and the three of you still reading this are likely as well. So let me wrap this up real quick. 

I looked at two incidence studies, one from the UK and one from Wisconsin, that give a bit more clinical insight into this dilemma. The UK study [4] in 2003 looked at 20,570 screening events in type II diabetic patients who were seen at general practitioner offices. They followed the incidence of sight threatening (moderate preproliferative) diabetic retinopathy out to 5 years. In patients with no history of retinopathy, the incidence was 0.3% (95% CI 0.1-0.5) in year one and a cumulative incidence of 3.9% (CI 2.8-5.0) at year five. To have a 95% probability to remain free of any sight threatening retinopathy they found the mean screening intervals to be 5.4 years (95% CI 4.7-6.3) for no history of retinopathy, 1 year (95% CI 0.7-1.3) for a history of any retinopathy findings and 0.3 years (95% CI 0.2-0.5) for those already with sight threatening findings.

The Wisconsin study look at 3 different populations stratified by age (< or > 30 yo) and whether they were already using insulin. They then looked at incidence over 10 years and the progression of retinopathy. Unfortunately, UW's journal database becomes stingier by the day and I didn't have access to the full article. Reportedly (via UpToDate author), there was no progression to proliferative retinopathy over four years in patients with no baseline retinopathy. Take it for what you will as I can't speak much more to that.

river_20_200.jpg

So what did I learn? There's no such thing as an easy answer anymore with this blog. This was definitely one of the more excruciating dives into literature so far. I was also reminded (which I am daily) that there are people much more intelligent than myself who can talk about theoretical models and calculations all day. I know it seemed like I was taking shots at Dr. Javitt but really it was all in good fun. Any of these authors could talk circles around me all day and I can't help if I have a non-treatment bias. Plus, I have to make up for the likely unnecessary MRI and Echo I ordered this week (see Maureen! :D).

What I am taking away from my own practice though is that I will probably adopt a tiered system. My higher risk (<45 yo, insulin dependent) patients will likely be referred for yearly screening while my lower risk patients will be referred for one every 2-3 years. The incidence data I discussed is good to make you feel better when you forget to screen a patient after 4-5 years, but not something that will sway me enough to push out the intervals even further. Finally, if I was forced to choose a utility value (again, this is highly subjective) for myself, it would be 0.69 as I consider 20/200 to be vision loss in my book. 

TL;DR: No right or wrong answer - personally will screen high risk patients yearly and low risk patients every 2-3 years. 

Now get hyped with the Breaking Bad finale trailer below as all bad things come to an end this Sunday (Warning: spoilers contained if you aren't up to date).

 

Freestyle Friday: To HEL and fat

freestylefridays (1).jpg

Well, I'm still on service. And I got a cold. Danny Amendola (in both fantasy leagues) is injured for the 37th time. Other than that, things are on the up and up. This week I bring you more odd "science" that can satiate your Perez Hilton-like need for medical gossip. Hopefully I can churn out another blog this upcoming week but I'm going on nights so the outcome looks bleek.

Transfusion Thresholds - I also like to live dangerously

DidIDoThat.jpg

For the next few weeks, possibly months, I'll be working on a new series titled "Did I (need to) do that?" What I want to do is look into interventions that we regularly perform in the hospital or clinic but don't really have a good reason for doing them (or do we?). We often get bogged down in the "standard of care" in our busy lives and can tend to just accept certain routine things as status quo. Hopefully with the next few blogs I can question some of these practices and find out once and for all what the data says.

If you have ever played blackjack, you know that the closer you get to 21, the more timid you get about forcing the action. The opposite can be said about life in the hospital, specifically with anemia. Once the hematocrit starts to trend towards 21, we start throwing in the type & crosses and anxiously trending the hematocrit until we bleed the patient to that threshold. The number 21 has long been considered the transfusion threshold of choice without much understanding. It’s like many a tradition that has no known origin or reason but one that we continue anyways. I’m back on our Family Medicine service this month after a long hiatus in the outpatient world so I’ve already had my fair shares of run ins with the number 21 or even higher (yeah, looking at you Ortho). So I have two quick questions today.

1. What is the origin of the transfusion threshold of 21 and is there any evidence for it in 1) GI bleed 2) Pre-op/Post-op 3) Cardiac patients?
486px-James_Blundell_(physician) copy.jpg

Looking back quickly, the first blood transfusion was done in 1818 by stud physician James Blundell. It was performed on a patient who had postpartum hemorrhage and it worked!  From that point on, vampires and humans alike have enjoyed a better quality of life. The origins of the 21 threshold are a bit more nebulous to say the least. I couldn't find a source that cited any landmark study or finding that created this phenomena.  

Being in Family Medicine, by far the leading source of bleeding we see is GI bleeds so it's no coincidence this was the topic I was most interested in. Now let's just throw out hemodynamically unstable patients right off the bat since that's a different ballgame. What I found here was a randomized trial (n=921) looking at hemodynamically stable patients who had severe, acute, upper GI bleeds, didn't have acute coronary syndrome and who received endoscopy within 6 hours of presentation (yeah, I know it's very specific).  [1] This isn't a study you could necessarily apply to a small, rural hospital. They looked at a restrictive (threshold 21) vs a liberal (< 27) strategy and found the restrictive strategy to be significantly superior in complications, subsequent bleeding, overall deaths (at 45 days). Great, so at least some evidence pointing towards 21 vs. 27.

Let's look at pre-op/post-op patients.

tumblr_lomhjcwZxD1qm38vco1_500.jpg

In pre-op patients,  we have a lovely Cochrane systematic review (n=6264) of 19 RCTs comparing restrictive and liberal transfusion thresholds in adults and in children. [2] There was a wide range of definitions of the two strategies with restrictive being in the hematocrit 21-27 range and liberal anywhere from 27-40 range. Seriously? Who's going to transfuse with a hematocrit of 40?! Anyways, overall the restrictive strategy was superior or equal to the liberal strategy finding the following:

  • A 39 percent decrease in the probability of receiving a transfusion (46 versus 84 percent; relative risk 0.61; 95% CI 0.52-0.72). This seems obvious but we have to remember that limiting transfusions limits the risks that come with transfusions (infection, fever, allergic reactions, TRALI etc)
  • No difference in functional recovery or hospital/intensive care length of stay.
  • No increased risk of myocardial infarction when all trials were included (relative risk = 0.88; 95% CI, 0.38-2.04). 

In post-op patients, it's even more 21 with a retrospective cohort by Carson et al. of 2083 patients who declined transfusions for religious regions that found zero deaths from the 99 patients with hemoglobin levels between 7.1-8, which was significant. Zero. Mortality then trended up with each point of hemoglobin that went down. (p < 0.01). They controlled for cardiovascular disease and age, which they found to be the two largest variables in the study. [3]

  • Hgb 7.1 to 8.0 (n = 99) — zero percent
  • Hgb 5.1 to 7.0 (n = 110) — 9 percent
  • Hgb 3.1 to 5.0 (n = 60) — 30 percent
  • Hgb ≤3.0 (n = 31) — 64 percent

So it looks like 21 is still the magic number which isn't a surprise. But what about cardiac patients? We always debate whether it's a hematocrit of 21, 25, or 30.

Well in short, it looks like 24.

The two main trials that have evaluated this specific question are the FOCUS [4] and TRICC trials [5]. The FOCUS trial looked at post-op patients with cardiovascular disease or risk factors (HLD, DM, HTN, Smoking, creatinine > 2) and found no difference in mortality, hospital complications, CHF, or stroke between the restrictive strategy (hct 24 threshold) and liberal strategy (hct 30 threshold)The TRICC trial (n=838) was a randomized study in ICU patients again looking at restrictive (hct 21-27) vs. liberal (hct 30-36) strategies. They found no difference in 30 days mortality and actually found a significantly lower mortality rate in those deemed "less acutely ill" (APACHE II score less than or equal to 20) or patients < 55 years old. In patients with ischemic heart disease, they found a non-significant trend towards greater 30-day mortality in the restrictive arm (26 vs. 21%).

So what did I learn? For some reason I am referencing the OJ Simpson trial quite a bit. In GI bleed, pre-op, and post-op patients I can be comfortable with a restrictive strategy which for my purposes will continue to be 21. For cardiac patients (including CHF patients), my threshold will be 24 and next time I hear a cardiologist tell me to transfuse < 30 I'll ask for some evidence. Nicely, of course.

So next time the transfusion steamroller tries to roll you over. Just say:

(no guarantee your refusal to transfuse will end up any different than above though) 

TL;DR - Transfuse at 21 for GI Bleed, pre-op, and post-op patients that are hemodynamically stable. Transfuse at 24 for cardiac patients that are stable.